This is a Copy and paste of a forum discussion on this question. A 24 years old man resents with pain and swelling of the left ear since 2 days. Her serum urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 60 mg/dL, and serum creatinine level is 6 mg/dL. U/S may fail to show evidence of gallstones or obvious signs of cholecystitis. : # S- Safety @ home # A- Afraid of Hubby? Smith, did you sleep well ?” This could unearth a duodenal ulcer that kept the patient awake at night ! The center is the highest ranking children’s hospital in New York for pediatric neurology and neurosurgery in the 2011–2012 U.S.
Which test comes next? No target cells – TARGET cells on smear – TARGET cells on smear . She is sexually active and uses a diaphragm for contraception. She appears well. DDX:Placenta Previa, absence of bleeding RULES OUT this dx.****Risk factors are:1-HT and preecclampsia, 2-Placental abruption in previous pregnancy, 3-trauma, 4-short umbilical cord, 6-COCAINE abuse. A bruit is heard over the left ear. The lungs are clear to auscultation.
A grade 2/6, early systolic murmur is heard at the left sternal border. The cardiac apex is laterally displaced and enlarged. Her previous pregnancy complications include concerns of fetal growth restriction and close surveillance by her physician. An ECG shows no abnormalities except for left ventricular hypertrophy. Echocardiography shows a left ventricular ejection fraction of 50% and an increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?